06-16-2009, 05:20 PM
<!--QuoteBegin-acharya+Jun 14 2009, 04:17 AM-->QUOTE(acharya @ Jun 14 2009, 04:17 AM)<!--QuoteEBegin-->
Lot of these are unsubstantiated without any solid evidence or any real evidence of the mechanism for language transfer.
There should be evidence of the final destination and also some evidence of the same language at the source region. None of them show any evidence of the same language in the source region. Nobody sees that it is odd.
Occupation by an outside tribe does not chnage the language much unless the tribe becomes part of the local population and merges genetically with the local population which might take atleast 1000+ years. We are talking about the most populated region of the HUMAN world in those times.
Africa, Coastal region of the Asian landmass including middle east and the ancient civilizations such as Indus valley, Babylon, Egypt, Greek/Roman regions were the most populated by HUMAN population. There is no way that some outside language can come and overpower another local language.Â
There could be influence of one language at the periphery of the region and that seems logical. Deep cultural roots, traditions and social order cannot be displaced by some outside tribes who are trying to survive in a nomadic region with no signs of civilization memory.
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ADDED LATER:
Few people who are familiar with gentic and genetic anthropology have commented that any gene pool to get assimilated deep inside another large population it will take years in the range of 50000 years i.e. Fifty thousand years.
There is no way that some tribe has penetrated another human habiation and assimilated genetically in less than 5000 years.</b>
[right][snapback]98725[/snapback][/right]
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Not exactly,
The language of Babylon was sumerian then become semitic(akadian invasion) ,today is arab.
In Egypt coptic was spoken ,today is arab;
In Turkey ,anatolian languages (like hittite) was replaced by greek and iranian,and again replaced by turkish 1000 years ago.
3 regions heavely populated ,whit deep ancestral cultures ,whit langauges replaced by more primitive nomads.In all this areas ,the genetic impact of nomads was minimal(no more then 5-10%).
In all this regions no singnificant change in culture or population is visible.
Geneticaly yes,it takes 50000 years for genes to mutate but phisicaly alot can change in thi speriod.On african male maried an asian women-the child is asimilated an least by half.
2500 years ago ,the population of Sri Lanka was about 1 milion.About 5000 people from north India came and they change the language ( i refer to sinhala).This north-indians formed 0,5% of population.The population is largely pre-IE but the language is mainly IE.The migration is mentioned in legends and documents.
Lot of these are unsubstantiated without any solid evidence or any real evidence of the mechanism for language transfer.
There should be evidence of the final destination and also some evidence of the same language at the source region. None of them show any evidence of the same language in the source region. Nobody sees that it is odd.
Occupation by an outside tribe does not chnage the language much unless the tribe becomes part of the local population and merges genetically with the local population which might take atleast 1000+ years. We are talking about the most populated region of the HUMAN world in those times.
Africa, Coastal region of the Asian landmass including middle east and the ancient civilizations such as Indus valley, Babylon, Egypt, Greek/Roman regions were the most populated by HUMAN population. There is no way that some outside language can come and overpower another local language.Â
There could be influence of one language at the periphery of the region and that seems logical. Deep cultural roots, traditions and social order cannot be displaced by some outside tribes who are trying to survive in a nomadic region with no signs of civilization memory.
<b>
ADDED LATER:
Few people who are familiar with gentic and genetic anthropology have commented that any gene pool to get assimilated deep inside another large population it will take years in the range of 50000 years i.e. Fifty thousand years.
There is no way that some tribe has penetrated another human habiation and assimilated genetically in less than 5000 years.</b>
[right][snapback]98725[/snapback][/right]
<!--QuoteEnd--><!--QuoteEEnd-->
Not exactly,
The language of Babylon was sumerian then become semitic(akadian invasion) ,today is arab.
In Egypt coptic was spoken ,today is arab;
In Turkey ,anatolian languages (like hittite) was replaced by greek and iranian,and again replaced by turkish 1000 years ago.
3 regions heavely populated ,whit deep ancestral cultures ,whit langauges replaced by more primitive nomads.In all this areas ,the genetic impact of nomads was minimal(no more then 5-10%).
In all this regions no singnificant change in culture or population is visible.
Geneticaly yes,it takes 50000 years for genes to mutate but phisicaly alot can change in thi speriod.On african male maried an asian women-the child is asimilated an least by half.
2500 years ago ,the population of Sri Lanka was about 1 milion.About 5000 people from north India came and they change the language ( i refer to sinhala).This north-indians formed 0,5% of population.The population is largely pre-IE but the language is mainly IE.The migration is mentioned in legends and documents.