01-07-2004, 07:46 PM
Having ruled out Casteism, Low technology, aversion to foreign warfare tactics, foreign military technology. So What is the REAL REASON that North India was easily conquered by foreigners? Reason for my generic answers, reponses are that I am here to learn just like everybody.
Here are some more generic stuff that I need to learn about. Can please someone elaborate on following?
Even in Punjab, though muslims were in power Hindus always had administration controls right upto Khyber pass till 1947. All mughal districts had a Diwan (who was always a Hindu) responsible for collecting revenue and paying Armies. Hindus who didn't served in Mughal/Muslim armies were forced to pay Jaziya taxes., and these taxes were collected by Hindu Diwans in Punjab, Rajasthan, etc. Mughals and Muslim administration (before British) was only ruling cities, villages and towns were more or less independents and paid "tribute" once a year to Diwan.
Is above right or wrong?
Here are some more generic stuff that I need to learn about. Can please someone elaborate on following?
Even in Punjab, though muslims were in power Hindus always had administration controls right upto Khyber pass till 1947. All mughal districts had a Diwan (who was always a Hindu) responsible for collecting revenue and paying Armies. Hindus who didn't served in Mughal/Muslim armies were forced to pay Jaziya taxes., and these taxes were collected by Hindu Diwans in Punjab, Rajasthan, etc. Mughals and Muslim administration (before British) was only ruling cities, villages and towns were more or less independents and paid "tribute" once a year to Diwan.
Is above right or wrong?